Author Topic: Does probability fascinate anyone else?  (Read 2270 times)

I was reading about the gambler's fallacy earlier and I realized that probability and, to a lesser extent, math in general is just incredible. I'm not particularly brilliant at mathematics, and I'm only in the beginning of Algebra II, but it's incredible to me.
One thing that still confuses me is that if you flip a coin three times, there's a one in eight chance of it being heads each time, but for each flip, it's a fifty percent chance of being heads. If someone could explain that to me, I'd be grateful.


Says the guy with a smart people special interest


I was reading about the gambler's fallacy earlier and I realized that probability and, to a lesser extent, math in general is just incredible. I'm not particularly brilliant at mathematics, and I'm only in the beginning of Algebra II, but it's incredible to me.
On thing that still confuses me is that if you flip a coin three times, there's a one in eight chance of it being heads each time, but for each flip, it's a fifty percent chance of being heads. If someone could explain that to me, I'd be grateful.
An individual flip refers to the probability of heads or tails, 3 flips refers to all of the chances provided.

I think it's interesting too.




I think its pretty damn fascinating, but I don't want to obsess over it ;-;

An individual flip refers to the probability of heads or tails, 3 flips refers to all of the chances provided.
Yeah, but I don't see why that is. If it's 50% for each individually, why is it 12.5% for them as a group?
Er, 12.5% is 1/8, right?

I was reading about the gambler's fallacy earlier and I realized that probability and, to a lesser extent, math in general is just incredible. I'm not particularly brilliant at mathematics, and I'm only in the beginning of Algebra II, but it's incredible to me.
One thing that still confuses me is that if you flip a coin three times, there's a one in eight chance of it being heads each time, but for each flip, it's a fifty percent chance of being heads. If someone could explain that to me, I'd be grateful.
Three flips:
1st flip: 50% chance of heads
2nd flip: 50% chance of heads
3rd flip: 50% chance of heads
50% = 0.5
0.5*0.5*0.5 = 0.125
0.125 = 1/8

Yeah, but I don't see why that is. If it's 50% for each individually, why is it 12.5% for them as a group?
Er, 12.5% is 1/8, right?
Because once ANY of the coins flip as tails, they are no longer "all heads".

Oooh, OK, thanks Chrono.

Did you guys forget the probability factor of it landing on the side?

In this scenario, it's a magic coin that has an exactly 50% chance of either side. 0% on the edge, silly.