Do those still exist or are they a fringe
How is the time period relevant here? Did Christianity have another reformation that I'm unaware of?
It seems like you're implying that because Islam had no reformation, that's why certain Muslim-majority nations still have slave labor and persecute gays. But there were Christian-majority nations in history that did both of those things. Unless Christianity has changed dramatically since then, doesn't that undermine what you're saying?